A 65 year-old female is referred to your office by her rheumatologist, complaining of a severe, unilateral headache of a piercing quality. You examine the patient and cannot appreciate any pulsation of the temporal artery on the side of her head, ipsilateral to her cephalgia. While awaiting consultation of the appropriate specialist, you prescribe prednisone. Why has the prednisone been prescribed in this case?
A. to reduce the stenosis of the contralateral temporal artery
B. to reduce the swelling of the patient's berry aneurysm
C. because the patient is at risk for developing blindness
D. because the patient most likely has pseudotumor cerebri
E. because of the associated risk of angioedema developing in her oropharynx